" This lady is his wife and mother... of his children." Roche translation
"But here is his queen, his wife and mother of his children" Fagles translation
When reading roche's translation he uses the ... to give it the irony of the Chorus inroducing Yocasta as his mother and also mother of his children, giving it double meanings for those who are familiar with the story. For Fagles translation he is simply introducing Jocasata as Oedipus wife and mother of his children, no double meaning. The meaning of the quote ofcourse changes in the sense that the sentence is unimportant for the readers of Fagles, while Roche keeps the irony going through out the whole play making every word and sentence significant.
But what about the line break after "mother" that we discussed on Friday in the Fagles version? Doesn't that have the same effect as the "..." (elipsis)?
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