"Good-bye, my poor deluded, lost and damned! There's nothing else that I can call you now." Roche, (pg. 60)
After reading both translations, I've taken notice of a relatively significant change in the diction used by Roche and Fagles. In Roche's translation, Jocasta uses the possessive pronoun "my," which I feel displays a certain amount of guilt on her behalf because she recognizes that Oedipus is her son and takes responsibility for the prophecy becoming true. On the other hand, in Fagles' translation, Jocasta seems to be relatively indifferent and detached, giving Oedipus the name "man of agony" which shows she views Oedipus as a man, an indiviual who has damned himself to the his fate. Although the change in text doesn't seem to be too significant, I think the two translations can be interpreted in different ways, creating different images of Jocasta.
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